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Friday, August 30, 2019

Prelims booster(Micro notes), current affairs with static portion -30 August 2019


Antimicrobial Resistance
Antimicrobial Resistance
Antimicrobial Resistance
  • Anti microbial resistance is the resistance acquired by any microorganism (bacteria, viruses, fungi, parasite, etc.) against antimicrobial drugs (such as antibiotics, antifungals, antivirals, antimalarials, and anthelmintics) that are used to treat infections.
  • As a result, standard treatments become ineffective, infections persist and may spread to others.
  • Microorganisms that develop antimicrobial resistance are sometimes referred to as “superbugs”.
  • It is now regarded as a major threat to public health across the globe.


 H1N1 Virus(Swine flu)
 H1N1 Virus(Swine flu)
  • a highlAntimicrobial Resistancey contagious respiratory disease in pigs caused by one of several swine influenza A viruses
  • Transmission of swine influenza viruses to humans is uncommon. However, the swine influenza virus can be transmitted to humans via contact with infected pigs or environments contaminated with swine influenza viruses.
  • Symptoms are cough, fever, soar throat , stuffy or runny nose, headache, body ache etc.


REDD(Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and forest Degradation)
REDD(Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and forest Degradation)
  • Context: The Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) programme being carried out in the himalayan states jointly by Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE) and International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development (ICIMOD) has been extended till July 2020.
  • It is a mechanism
  • It is under negotiation under UNFCC since 2005
  • objective is to mitigate climate change through reducing net emissions of greenhouse gases through enhanced forest management in developing countries.
  • India did not participated in UN-REDD
  • REDDD+ (Defined in Bali Action Plan, 2007, CoP13)
  • What is the difference between REDD and REDD+?
  1. REDD = “reducing emissions from deforestation in developing countries”
  2. REDD+ (or REDD-plus) = to “reducing emissions from deforestation and forest degradation in developing countries, and the role of conservation, sustainable management of forests, and enhancement of forest carbon stocks in developing countries”
  • REDD+ is essentially a vehicle to financially reward developing countries for their verified efforts to reduce emissions and enhance removals of greenhouse gases.
  • India favours REDD+
Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA)
The Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA) known commonly as the Iran deal, is an international agreement on the nuclear program of Iran reached in Vienna on 14 July 2015 between Iran, the P5+1 (the five permanent members of the United Nations Security Council—China, France, Russia, United Kingdom, United States—plus Germany),and the European Union
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Modern History -Prelims booster quiz answer day-08

 1.Consider the following statements about ‘Swaraj Party’.
  1. It was formed due to disagreement over legislative council entry.
  2. Motilal Nehru was its first president.
  3. It separated from the Indian National Congress in 1924.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans-B
  • The Swaraj Party was established as the Congress-Khilafat Swaraj Party. It was a political party formed in India in January 1923 after the Gayaannual conference in December 1922 of the National Congress.
  • The two most important leaders were Chittaranjan Das, who was its president and Motilal Nehru, who was its secretary.
  • Gandhiji brought the strife between no-changers and Swarajists to an end. Both the parties signed the joint statement and declared that Swarajists would work in the council on behalf of and as an integral part of the Congress. This decision was endorsed in the December 1924 Belgaum Session of Congress in which Gandhi became president of congress for first and only one time
2.With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events:
  1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy
  2. Quit India Movement launched
  3. Second Round Table Conference
3.What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
(a) 1-2-3
(b) 2-1-3
(c) 3-2-1
(d) 3-1-2
Ans-C
Second Round Conference happened in 1931, Quit India Movement in 1942 and Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy in 1946.
4.Who came to be known as the Father of Communal Electorate in India?
(a) Montague
(b) Minto
(c) Cornwallis
(d) Wellesely
Ans-B
  • He was known for the act of 1909 which introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of ‘separate electorate’. Under this, the Muslim members were to be elected only by Muslim voters.
  • Thus, the Act ‘legalised communalism’ and Lord Minto came to be known as the Father of Communal Electorate.
5.In the Federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to the
(a)Federal Legislature
(b)Governor General
(c)Provincial Legislature
(d)Provincial Governors
Ans-B
Under 1935 Act, the Governor General was authorised to act in his discretion and under certain other provisions. He could exercise his individual judgment. He was vested with the final political authority in the country; and was given widest discretionary powers and special responsibilities.
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Modern History -Prelims booster quiz day-08

 1.Consider the following statements about ‘Swaraj Party’.
  1. It was formed due to disagreement over legislative council entry.
  2. Motilal Nehru was its first president.
  3. It separated from the Indian National Congress in 1924.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

2.With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events:
  1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy
  2. Quit India Movement launched
  3. Second Round Table Conference
3.What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
(a) 1-2-3
(b) 2-1-3
(c) 3-2-1
(d) 3-1-2

4.Who came to be known as the Father of Communal Electorate in India?
(a) Montague
(b) Minto
(c) Cornwallis
(d) Wellesely

5.In the Federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to the
(a)Federal Legislature
(b)Governor General
(c)Provincial Legislature
(d)Provincial Governors


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Thursday, August 29, 2019

Prelims booster(Micro notes), current affairs with static portion -29 August 2019

Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana(PMUY)
Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana(PMUY)

  • aims to provide deposit free LPG (liquefied petroleum gas) connections to poor households [identified through the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) ]
  • A report from the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare places Household Air Pollution (HAP) as the second leading risk factor contributing to India’s disease burden.

Project SURE
  • The SURE project is a commitment by India’s apparel industry to set a sustainable pathway for the Indian fashion industry
  • This framework would help the industry reduce its carbon emissions, increase resource efficiency, tackle waste and water management, and create positive social impact to achieve long-term sustainability targets
United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)


  • India for the first time will be hosting the 14th session of the Conference of Parties (COP-14) of the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) from 2nd -13th September 2019
  • Established in 1994 
  • UNCCD is the only legally binding international agreement linking environment and development issues to the land agenda
  • United Nations has 3 Rio Conventions namely, United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) and United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD). 

Child well-being index
Child well-being index

  • The index is prepared by NGO World Vision India and research institute IFMR LEAD to measure and tracks children’s well-being comprehensively.
  • The index contains 24 indicators based on three key dimensions of healthy individual development, positive relationships and protective contexts.
C-DOT’s latest innovations
  • C-Sat-Fi (C-DOT Satellite WiFi): It is based on the optimal utilization of wireless and satellite communication to extend connectivity to the unserved areas including the remote islands and difficult terrains
  • It will help in meeting the demands of applications like IPTV, HD Video Streaming, Online Gaming and host of other cloud-based services that necessitate the seamless availability of high bandwidth
Indonesia’s new capital:The capital of Indonesia, which is Jakarta at present, will be relocated to the province of East Kalimantan on the lesser populated island of Borneo.

Tarantula
Tarantula

  •  Found in Pakkamalai Reserve Forests(Tamil Nadu)
  • It is a critically endangered species.
  • The species is known to be endemic to India.
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arts & culture-classical dance-Prelims booster quiz answer day-07

 1.With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements:
1. It is a song and dance performance.
2. Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance.
3. It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
Ans-B
Manipuri Dance 

  • Theme – Vaishanvites and Shaivism – Rasleela, Ramleela 
  • Based on rituals( birth, marriage), festivals, martial art etc – Lai Haroba, Thang-ta, Sankirtana Maibas, Meiteis- priests and priestess 
  • Tandava & Lasya 
  • Manipuri classical style of singing is called Nat 
  • Light body movts; arm movts graceful  Musical instruments – Pung, cymbals, flute 



2.With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements:
1. Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama.
2. It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam.
3. It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans-D
Sattriya Dance
 Assam, 15th Century
 Music, dance and drama
 Main theme – Radha krishna
 Associated with Shankaradeva(Vaishnivism)
 Tandava and lasya
 Originally performed in sattras (monastery)
 Governed by strictly laid down principles of hastamudras,
footwork, aharya, ,music

3. "In the context of cultural history of India, a pose in dance and dramatics called „Tribhanga‟ has been a favourite of Indian artists from ancient times till today"
 Which one of the following statements best describes this pose?
(a) One leg is bent and the body is slightly but oppositely curved at waist and neck.
(b)Facial expressions, hand gestures and make-up are combined to symbolize certain epic or historic characters.
(c)Movements of body, face and hands are used to express oneself or to tell a story.
(d) A little smile, slightly curved waist and certain hand gestures are emphasized to express the feelings of love or eroticism."
Ans-A
Tribhanga
Tribhanga

Oddisi Dance
 Dance and drama
 Postures – Tribhanga & Chowk
 Maharis and gotipua tradition
 Temple & court dance
 Based on Geetagovinda (Jayadeva)
 Pakhwaj, Sitar Flute






4. How do you distinguish between Kuchipudi and Bharatnatyam dances?
 1. Dancers occasionally speaking dialogues is found in Kuchipudi dance but not in Bharatnatyam.
 2. Dancing on the brass plate by keeping the feet on its edges is a feature of Bharatnatyam but Kuchipudi dance does not have such a form of movements.
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans-C
Bharartanatyam – Tamil Nadu
 Bha (gestures), Ra (music, raga), Ta (Tala, rhythm), Natya(drama)
 Textual reference – Bharatmuni‟s Natyashastra; Abhinaya Darpan
of Nandikeshwara; Silpathikaram
 Origin in temples - Chidambaram temples sculptures (devdasi)
 Hand gestures, mudras very imp and body movts
 Aka Ekharya –where a dancer performs many roles
 No Vachikabhinya- no lip movt.
 Lasya
 Attire flame like
Kuchipudi – Andhra Pradesh
 Traced back to Kuchelapuram village ( mix of folk traditions)
 Performed by the priests of this village in temples
 Theme – Bhagvat Purana ( life of krishna)
 Tarangam – dancing on brass plate and pot on head – balance
 Solo and group dance
 Vachikabhinya – lip movt.
 Carnatic music
 Tandava and lasya

5. Bimbavati Devi is a well-known dancer of which type of dance?
(a) Manipuri
(b) Bharat Natyam
(c) Kuchipudi
(d) Odissi
Ans-A
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arts & culture-classical dance-Prelims booster quiz day-07

 1.With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements:
1. It is a song and dance performance.
2. Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance.
3. It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only

2.With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements:
1. Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama.
2. It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam.
3. It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

3. "In the context of cultural history of India, a pose in dance and dramatics called „Tribhanga‟ has been a favourite of Indian artists from ancient times till today. Which one of the following statements best describes this pose?
 (a) One leg is bent and the body is slightly but oppositely curved at waist and neck.
(b)Facial expressions, hand gestures and make-up are combined to symbolize certain epic or historic characters.
(c)Movements of body, face and hands are used to express oneself or to tell a story.
(d) A little smile, slightly curved waist and certain hand gestures are emphasized to express the feelings of love or eroticism."

.4. How do you distinguish between Kuchipudi and Bharatnatyam dances?
 1. Dancers occasionally speaking dialogues is found in Kuchipudi dance but not in Bharatnatyam.
 2. Dancing on the brass plate by keeping the feet on its edges is a feature of Bharatnatyam but Kuchipudi dance does not have such a form of movements.
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

5. Bimbavati Devi is a well-known dancer of which type of dance?
(a) Manipuri
(b) Bharat Natyam
(c) Kuchipudi
(d) Odissi
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Wednesday, August 28, 2019

western Ghats and it's conservation

Why western Ghats important?
western Ghats
western Ghats


  • Western Ghats host India’s richest wilderness in 13 national parks and several sanctuaries and home of many endangered plants and animals.
  • Recognised by UNESCO as one of the world’s eight most important biodiversity hotspots
  •  Western Ghats acts as a huge water supplier to six states( Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra, and southern Gujarat) and also sourcing to numerous rivers, including the Godavari, Krishna and Cauvery.
western Ghats conservation
  •  Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel (WGEEP) was constituted by the Central Government, under the chairmanship of Madhav Gadgil.
  • WGEEP issued recommendations for the preservation of the fragile western peninsular region.
Highlights of the Report:
  • entire stretch of the Western Ghats should be declared as Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA).
  •  division of region into three zones – ESZ1, ESZ2, ESZ3 and gave a broad outline of certain restrictions for each zone.
  • no new polluting industries (red and orange) were to be permitted in ESZ1 and ESZ2 and gradual phasing out of such existing industries by 2016
  • Complete ban on mining in ESZ1 and regulation of mining in ESZ-2.
  •  bottom to top approach be followed for conservation of Western Ghats.

Kasturirangan Panel: It was set up in 2012 to advise the government on Gadgil Committee Report.
  • Divide the Western Ghats into Natural Landscape and Cultural Landscape
  • It proposed the demarcation of ESZ be done at the village level.
  • Only red category (heavy polluting) industries were restricted.
  • Hydro power project would be given the green signal on a case to case basis, post assessment of its benefits and the possible damage it could cause
NGT action:-
  •  six Western Ghats States, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra and Gujarat have been restrained by the NGT from giving environmental clearance to activities that may adversely impact the eco-sensitive areas of the mountain ranges.
  •  panel directed that the extent of Eco-Sensitive Zones of Western Ghats, which was notified by the Central government earlier, should not be reduced, in view of the recent floods in Kerala
  • any alteration in the draft notification of zones may seriously affect the environment.
Conclusion
  • India has realized the importance of involving local communities in forest protection and management.
  • developed several policies and implemented large programmes such as Joint Forest Management programme.
  • India has multiple institutional approaches to forest protection and management.



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Prelims booster(Micro notes), current affairs with static portion -28 August 2019

G7

  • The 45th edition of G7 Summit is currently being held in France.
  •  intergovernmental organisation that was formed in 1975
  • The G7 or ‘Group of Seven’ are Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom, and the United States
  •  G7 does not have a formal constitution or a fixed headquarters
  • decisions taken by leaders during annual Summits are non-binding
G20
G20
G20
  • The G20 was formed in 1999 to address global economic concerns
  • Apart from the G7 countries, the G20 comprises Argentina, Australia, Brazil, China, India, Indonesia, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, South Korea, and Turkey.
  • India is selected to host a G20 summit in 2022.



Advisory Board for Banking Frauds (ABBF)
  • Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) has constituted an ‘Advisory Board for Banking Frauds (ABBF)’ to examine bank fraud of over ₹50 crore and recommend action.
  • Besides the chairman, the Board consists of three other members.
Conservation of Otters
  • The 18th Conference of the Parties (CoP18) of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES)was recently held in Geneva
  • Members at the Conference have voted to move the smooth-coated otter(Lutrogale perspicillata) from CITES Appendix II to CITES Appendix I
  •  CITES is as an international legally binding agreement 
CITES Appendix:
  • Appendix I includes species “threatened with extinction”. Trade in specimens of these species is permitted only in exceptional circumstances.
  • Appendix II provides a lower level of protection.
  • Appendix III contains species that are protected in at least one country, 
Open Acreage Licensing Policy
  •  part of the Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy, provides uniform licences for exploration and production of all forms of hydrocarbons
  • Fields are offered under a revenue-sharing model
    National Digital Library(NDL)
  • Human Resource Development Ministry under its National Mission on Education through Information and Communication Technology launched NDL in 2018
  • NDL is a digital repository containing textbooks, articles, videos, audio books, lectures, simulations, fiction and all other kinds of learning media.
  • NDL has been integrated with UMANG App(Unified Mobile Application for New-age Governance developed by Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)and National e-Governance Division (NeGD) to drive Mobile Governance in India,single platform for all Indian Citizens)
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Science &Tech-Prelims booster quiz answer day-06

1.With reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. It is surface-to surface missile. 
2. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only. 
3. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500km away. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 
(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 and 3 only 
(c) 1 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 
Ans-A
Agni series
Agni series 

2.Consider the following pairs : 
Vitamin Deficiency disease 
1. Vitamin C : Scurvy 
2. Vitamin D : Rickets 
3. Vitamin E : Night blindness
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
 (a) 1 and 2 only 
 (b) 3 only
 (c) 1, 2 and 3
 (d) None
Ans-A
Vitamin Deficiency disease
Vitamin Deficiency disease 


3.Which one of the following is the process involved in photosynthesis?
 (a) Potential energy is released to form free energy. 
 (b) Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored.
 (c) Food is oxidized to release carbon dioxide and water.
 (d) Oxygen is taken, and carbon dioxide and water vapour are given out.
Ans-B

4.In addition to fingerprint scanning, which of the following can be used in the biometric identification of a person? 
1. Iris scanning 
2. Retinal scanning 
3. Voice recognition 
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 
(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 and 3 only 
(c) 1 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans-D

5.Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched ?
 Spacecraft                 Purpose 
1. Cassini-Huygens : Orbiting the Venus and transmitting data to the Earth 
2. Messenger : Mapping and investigating 
3. Voyager 1 and 2 : Exploring the outer solar system 
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 
(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 and 3 only 
(c) 1 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans-B
The Cassini spacecraft orbited around Saturn, sending back valuable data to Earth.

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Science & Tech-Prelims booster quiz day-06

1.With reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 
1. It is surface-to surface missile. 
2. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only. 
3. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500km away. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 
(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 and 3 only 
(c) 1 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 

2.Consider the following pairs : 
Vitamin Deficiency disease 
1. Vitamin C : Scurvy 
2. Vitamin D : Rickets 
3. Vitamin E : Night blindness
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
 (a) 1 and 2 only 
 (b) 3 only
 (c) 1, 2 and 3
 (d) None
3.Which one of the following is the process involved in photosynthesis?
 (a) Potential energy is released to form free energy. 
 (b) Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored.
 (c) Food is oxidized to release carbon dioxide and water.
 (d) Oxygen is taken, and carbon dioxide and water vapour are given out.

4.In addition to fingerprint scanning, which of the following can be used in the biometric identification of a person? 
1. Iris scanning 
2. Retinal scanning 
3. Voice recognition 
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 
(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 and 3 only 
(c) 1 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3

5.Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched ?
 Spacecraft                 Purpose 
1. Cassini-Huygens : Orbiting the Venus and transmitting data to the Earth 
2. Messenger : Mapping and investigating 
3. Voyager 1 and 2 : Exploring the outer solar system 
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 
(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 and 3 only 
(c) 1 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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Tuesday, August 27, 2019

Prelims booster(Micro notes), current affairs with static portion -26,27 August 2019

Gulf co-operation Council (GCC)
  • The GCC is a political and economic alliance of countries in the Arabian Peninsula.
  • It was established in 1981 to foster socioeconomic, security, and cultural cooperation.
  • Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and the UAE are its members.
    Gulf co-operation Council (GCC)
    Gulf co-operation Council (GCC)
    Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP)
  • Context: Stakeholders’ Consultations by Department of Commerce on RCEP.
  • members-16 {Ten member states of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) (Brunei,Myanmar, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Vietnam) and the six states with which ASEAN has existing FTAs (Australia, China, India, Japan, South Korea and New Zealand).
  • RCEP negotiations were formally launched in November 2012 at the ASEAN Summit in Cambodia.
  • 7th RCEP Inter-Sessional Ministerial Meeting is being held in Cambodia.
  • RCEP aims to boost goods trade by eliminating most tariff and non-tariff barriers
Image result for Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP)
 Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP)
The James Webb Space Telescope, also called Webb(JWST)
  • It is a large, space-based observatory, optimized for infrared wavelengths, which will complement and extend the discoveries of the Hubble Space Telescope
  •  It is only at infrared wavelengths that we can see the first stars and galaxies forming after the Big Bang. 
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Environment-ecology-Prelims booster quiz answer day-05

1.Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for

(a) Measuring oxygen levels in blood
(b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
(c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems
(d) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions
Answer-C
Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD, also called Biological Oxygen Demand) is the amount of dissolved oxygenneeded (i.e. demanded) by aerobic biological organisms to break down organic material present in a given water sample at certain temperature over a specific time period.

2.With reference to bio-toilets used by the Indian Railways, consider the following statements:
1. The decomposition of human waste in the bio-toilets in initiated by a fungal inoculum.
2.Ammonia and water vapour are the only end products in this decomposition which are released into the atmosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer-D
Bio-toilet is a decomposition mechanized toilet system which decomposes human excretory waste in the digester tank using specific high graded bacteria (aerobic or anaerobic) further converting it into methane gas, Carbon dioxide gas and water.

3.Which one of the following is the best description of the term 'ecosystem'?
(a) A community of organisms interacting with one another
(b) That part of the Earth which is inhabited by living organisms
(c) A community of organisms together with the environment in which they live
(d) The flora and fauna of a geographical area.
Answer-C
  • A community of organisms interacting with one another – no specific term.
  • That part of the Earth which is inhabited by living organisms ==> biosphere.
  • A community of organisms together with the environment in which they live ==> ecosystem.
  • The flora and fauna of a geographical area ==> biodiversity.

4.Lichens, which are capable of initiating ecolological succession even on a bare rock, are actually a symbiotic association of
(a) algae and bacteria
(b) algae and fungi
(c) bacteria and fungi
(d) fungi and mosses
Answer-B
In this association, the fungi (called mycobiont) facilitate water, minerals, vitamins, etc to the algae and algae (called phycobiont) prepare carbohydrate by the process of photosynthesis and supply the food to the fungi

5.With reference to Neem tree, consider the following statements :
1.Neem oil can be used as a pesticide to control the proliferation of some species of insects and mites.
2.Neem seeds are used in the manufacture of biofuels and hospital
3. Neem oil has applications in pharmaceutical industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer-D



Environment-ecology-Prelims booster quiz day-05

1.Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for

(a) Measuring oxygen levels in blood
(b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
(c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems
(d) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions

2.With reference to bio-toilets used by the Indian Railways, consider the following statements:
1. The decomposition of human waste in the bio-toilets in initiated by a fungal inoculum.
2.Ammonia and water vapour are the only end products in this decomposition which are released into the atmosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

3.Which one of the following is the best description of the term 'ecosystem'?
(a) A community of organisms interacting with one another
(b) That part of the Earth which is inhabited by living organisms
(c) A community of organisms together with the environment in which they live
(d) The flora and fauna of a geographical area.

4.Lichens, which are capable of initiating ecolological succession even on a bare rock, are actually a symbiotic association of
(a) algae and bacteria
(b) algae and fungi
(c) bacteria and fungi
(d) fungi and mosses

5.With reference to Neem tree, consider the following statements :
1.Neem oil can be used as a pesticide to control the proliferation of some species of insects and mites.
2.Neem seeds are used in the manufacture of biofuels and hospital
3. Neem oil has applications in pharmaceutical industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3


Monday, August 26, 2019

economics -macro-Prelims booster quiz answer day-04

1.Which of the following has/have occurred in India after its liberalization of economic policies in 1991?
 1. Share of agriculture in GDP increased enormously.
 2. Share of India’s exports in world trade increased.
 3. FDI inflows increased.
 4. India’s foreign exchange reserves increased enormously.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans-B
gdp graph of agriculture after liberation
       gdp graph of agriculture after liberation 
 liberalization
 liberalization

2.There has been a persistent deficit budget year after year. Which action/actions of the following can be taken by the Government to reduce the deficit?
1. Reducing revenue expenditure
2. Introducing new welfare schemes
3. Rationalizing subsidies
4. Reducing import duty
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans-C
budget deficit occurs when expenses grater than revenue .indicate the financial health of a country

3.Which of the following is/are included in the capital budget of the Government of India?
1. Expenditure on acquisition of assets like roads, buildings, machinery, etc.
2. Loans received from foreign governments
3. Loans and advances granted to the States and Union Territories
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans-D
The Capital Budget is an account of the assets as well as liabilities of the central government; it takes into consideration changes in capital.
budget



4.In the 'Index of Eight Core Industries', which one of the following is given the highest weight?
 (a) Coal production
 (b) Electricity generation
 (c) Fertilizer production
 (d) Steel production
Ans-B
Eight Core Industries

5.With reference to Indian economy, consider the following statements:
1. The rate of growth of Real Gross Domestic Product has steadily increased in the last decade.
2. The Gross Domestic Product at market prices (in rupees) has steadily increased in the last decade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans-B
rate of growth of Real Gross Domestic Product
                                   source-real gross domestic rate
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economics -macro-Prelims booster quiz day-04

1.Which of the following has/have occurred in India after its liberalization of economic policies in 1991?
 1. Share of agriculture in GDP increased enormously.
 2. Share of India’s exports in world trade increased.
 3. FDI inflows increased.
 4. India’s foreign exchange reserves increased enormously.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

2.There has been a persistent deficit budget year after year. Which action/actions of the following can be taken by the Government to reduce the deficit?
1. Reducing revenue expenditure
2. Introducing new welfare schemes
3. Rationalizing subsidies
4. Reducing import duty
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

3.Which of the following is/are included in the capital budget of the Government of India?
1. Expenditure on acquisition of assets like roads, buildings, machinery, etc.
2. Loans received from foreign governments
3. Loans and advances granted to the States and Union Territories
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

4.In the 'Index of Eight Core Industries', which one of the following is given the highest weight?
 (a) Coal production
 (b) Electricity generation
 (c) Fertilizer production
 (d) Steel production

5.With reference to Indian economy, consider the following statements:
1. The rate of growth of Real Gross Domestic Product has steadily increased in the last decade.
2. The Gross Domestic Product at market prices (in rupees) has steadily increased in the last decade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Saturday, August 24, 2019

Prelims booster(Micro notes), current affairs with static portion -24 August 2019

World Trade Organization (WTO) 

  • Context: WTO reforms must be taken up by all member countries: Piyush Goyal.
  • early days of the Silk Road to the creation of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) and the birth of the WTO,played an important role in supporting economic development and promoting peaceful relations among nations.
  • GATT became the only multilateral instrument governing international trade from 1948 until the WTO was established in 1995.
  • In the Marrakesh Agreement, the World Trade Organization (WTO) established.
  • subsidies classification
subsidies
subsidies 
South-South and Triangular Cooperation:-
  • Context: An international dialogue on South-South and Triangular Cooperation was recently held in New Delhi.
  • Collaboration among Acountries of the South in the political, economic, social, cultural, environmental and technical domains.
  • Can take place on a bilateral, regional, intraregional or interregional basis.
Financial Action Task Force (FATF):-
  • Context: Financial Action Task Force affiliate Asia Pacific Group (APG) places Pakistan on Blacklist for failing to combat terrorism, money laundering and meeting the required global standards.
  • Established in July 1989 by a Group of Seven (G-7) countries in a Summit held in Paris.
  • An independent inter-governmental body that develops and promotes policies to protect the Global Financial System against terror funding and Money Laundering activities.
  • FATF has 2 types of lists
Black List:-countries which are supporting terror funding and money laundering activities are listed in the Black list.
Grey List:- considered as the safe heaven for supporting terror funding and money laundering; included in this list. The inclusion in this list is not as severe as black listed.

FEDOR(Final Experimental Demonstration Object Research)
  • Context: Russia has launched an unmanned rocket into space.
  • Skybot F-850 is the first humanoid robot to be sent to space by Russia.
  • can emulate movements of the human body, has apparently embraced his mission, describing himself as “an assistant to the ISS crew”.
  • In 2011, NASA sent up Robonaut 2, a humanoid robot developed that had a similar aim of working in high-risk environments.
Baltic Nations:
  • Context: The Vice President concludes his tri-nation tour to the Baltic Nations-Lithuania, Latvia and Estonia.
  • group the three sovereign states in Northern Europe on the eastern coast of the Baltic Sea: Estonia, Latvia, and Lithuania.
  • All three countries are members of the European Union, NATO, the eurozone and the OECD.
Baltic Nations
Baltic Nations
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Polity-Salient Features of the Constitution-Prelims booster quiz answer day-03


1) Which of the following are correctly matched?
1) 1st schedule - Allocation of seats of the Rajya Sabha
2) 3rdschedule - Oaths
3) 6rd schedule - Provisions relating to the administration of tribal areas in Assam, etc.
4) 10th schedule - Anti-Defection Law
(A)Only 1, 2 and 3
(B) Only 2, 3 and 4
(C)Only 1, 2 and 4
(D)All of the above
Ans-B

2.Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection ?
(A) Second Schedule
(B) Fifth Schedule
(C) Eighth Schedule
(D)Tenth Schedule
Ans-D
First Schedule
1. Names of the States and their territorial jurisdiction.

2. Names of the Union Territories and their extent.
Second Schedule
 Provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of:

1. The President of India

2. The Governors of States

3. The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

4. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

5. The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly in the states

6. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Legislative Council in the states

7. The Judges of the Supreme Court

8. The Judges of the High Courts

9. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
Third Schedule
Forms of Oaths or Affirmations for:

1. The Union ministers

2. The candidates for election to the Parliament

3. The members of Parliament

4. The judges of the Supreme Court

5. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India

6. The state ministers

7. The candidates for election to the state legislature

8. The members of the state legislature

9. The judges of the High Courts
Fourth Schedule
Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and the union territories.
Fifth Schedule
Provisions relating to the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled  tribes.
Sixth Schedule
Provisions relating to the administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
Seventh Schedule
Division of powers between the Union and the States in terms of List I (Union List), List II (State List) and List III (Concurrent List). Presently, the Union List contains 100 subjects (originally 97), the state list contains 61 subjects (originally 66) and the concurrent list contains 52 subjects (originally 47).
Eighth Schedule
Languages recognized by the Constitution. Originally, it had 14 languages but presently there are 22 languages. They are: Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri (Dongri), Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Mathili (Maithili), Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Oriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santhali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu and Urdu. Sindhi was added by the 21st Amendment Act of 1967; Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were added by the 71 st Amendment Act of 1992; and Bodo, Dongri, Maithili and Santhali were added by the 92nd Amendment Act of 2003.
Ninth Schedule
Acts and Regulations (originally 13 but presently 282) 19 of the state legislatures dealing with land reforms and abolition of the zamindari system and of the. Parliament dealing with other matters. This schedule was added by the 1st Amendment (1951) to protect the laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on the ground of violation of fundamental rights. However, in 2007, the Supreme Court ruled that the laws included in this schedule after April 24, 1973, are now open to judicial review.
Tenth Schedule
Provisions relating to disqualification of the members of Parliament and State Legislatures on the ground of defection. This schedule was added by the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985, also known as Anti-defection Law.
Eleventh Schedule
Specifies the powers, authority and responsibilities ofPanchayats. It has 29 matters. This schedule was added by the 73rd Amendment Act of 1992.
Twelfth Schedule
Specifies the powers, authority and responsibilities of Municipalities. It has 18 matters. This schedule was added by the 74th Amendment Act of 1992.
3. Which of the following are features of the Indian Constitution?
1) Integrated Judiciary
2) Universal Adult Franchise
3) Three-tier Government
4) Rigid and Flexible Constitution
5) Single citizenship
(A) 1, 2, 3, 5
(B)1, 2, 4
(C) 2, 3, 4, 5
(D) All of the above
Ans-D
From U.K.• Nominal Head – President (like Queen)
• Cabinet System of Ministers
• Post of PM
• Parliamentary Type of Govt.
• Bicameral Parliament
• Lower House more powerful
• Council of Ministers responsible to Lower House
• Speaker in Lok Sabha

From U.S.• Written Constitution
• Executive head of state known as President and his being the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces
• Vice-President as the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha
• Fundamental Rights
• Supreme Court
• Provision of States
• Independence of Judiciary and judicial review
• Preamble
• Removal of Supreme Court and High Court Judges

From USSR
• Fundamental Duties
• Five year Plan

From AUSTRALIA
• Concurrent list
• Language of the preamble

From JAPAN
• Laws on which the Supreme Court functions

From WEIMAR CONSTITUION OF GERMANY
• Suspension of Fundamental Rights during the emergency

From CANADA
• Scheme of federation with a strong centre
• Distribution of powers between centre and the states
• And placing residuary powers with the centre

From IRELAND
• Concept of Directive Principles of States Policy (Ireland borrowed it from SPAIN)
• Method of election of President
• Nomination of members in the Rajya Sabha by the President
4.Which of the following is called 'Mini Constitution'?
(A) Government of India Act, 1935
(B) 42nd Constitutional Amendment
(C) 44th constitutional amendment
(D) Government of India Act, 1919
Ans-B
Changes were :
  • Preamble : It changed the characterization of India to “sovereign, socialist, secular democratic republic” from “sovereign democratic republic” and the words unity of the nation‘ was changed to “unity and integrity of the nation”.
  • Parliament: Raised the term of Loksabha and Vidhansabha from 5 to 6 years. The  quorum was left to be fixed by the rules of each house.
  • Judicial : Stating that the amendments can’t be questioned by any court on any ground.
  • Executive: The amendment stated that the president shall act in accordance to the council of ministers.
  • Federal : enable the Centre to deploy armed forces for dealing with situations of law and order in any state.
  • Emergency :authorizing the President to declare emergency in “a part” of the country

5.Which of the following is/are feature of Indian parliamentary system?

(A) majority party power
(B) Presence of Actual Executive and Nominal Executive
(C) Appointment of Executive to the Legislature
(D) All of the above
Ans-D
Indian parliamentary system
Indian parliamentary system

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